7 ms·

I'm nog allowed tot print a new copy of The Hobbit, due to copyright. However, if I buy a legal copy of the Hobbit and edit it using whiteout and pen that woul

I'm nog allowed tot print a new copy of The Hobbit, due to copyright. However, if I buy a legal copy of the Hobbit and edit it using whiteout and pen that would be perfectly legal (as far as I understand). I could even sell my modified copy. Isn't this basically what an in-browser ad filter does? Or is my understanding wrong here?

ajayyy 5y ago
If you made software that took a legally obtained copy of "The Hobbit", modified it locally according to a scripted patch, then displayed that to the user, then that would be similar. Adblocking happens locally. This is similar to game mods.
amalcon 5y ago
Somewhat offtopic trivia, but up until 2012 in the US, you were actually allowed to print a new copy of The Hobbit. Many publishers with no relationship to Tolkien or his estate have done this. Due to a quirk in international copyright law, it had entered the public domain in the US. A court ruling in 2012 restored copyright to the work, which is super weird since there are a lot of unauthorized copies still floating around.
- SahAssar 5y ago
  This sounded far too intriguing to not google a bit. I'm guessing you're talking about this? > J.R.R. Tolkien first tangled with copyright law in the mid-1960s when ACE Books discovered that the copyrights for The Lord of the Rings and The Hobbit had not been properly secured in the United States by his American publisher. ACE Books opportunistically published unauthorized paperback editions of those books in the United States. Until that time Tolkien’s books had only been available in hardback. Tolkien and his publishers reacted quickly by publishing their own authorized paperback editions, but in order to secure copyright in the United States again Tolkien was forced to revise both stories (thus confusing the issue of what is canonical in Middle-earth for his readers). > There remained a question over the status of the ACE Books edition until several years ago, when a long-running complaint by the Tolkien Estate was finally settled with payment to the author’s heirs. Until that time some people in the entertainment and publishing industry argued that there was still a copyright “hole” pertaining to Tolkien’s works in the United States. Source: https://middle-earth.xenite.org/why-are-some-people-sued-over-hobbit-while-others-are-not/ https://middle-earth.xenite.org/why-are-some-people-sued-ove...
  - jjk166 5y ago
    They're referring to Golan v Holder, which affirmed that the US could retroactively restore copyright to works that had fallen into the public domain in the US under the US's old copyright laws, but which remained protected by foreign copyright laws which the US had adjusted to be in compliance with. So basically The Hobbit, like many other works, was copyright protected in other countries, but had fallen into the public domain in the US; when the US agreed to honor the foreign copyrights, it became copyrighted in the US as well. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Golan_v._Holder https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Golan_v._Holder
    - SahAssar 5y ago
      Seems like they are related, from reading https://law.marquette.edu/facultyblog/2011/10/one-public-domain-to-rule-them-all/ https://law.marquette.edu/facultyblog/2011/10/one-public-dom... Please correct me if I'm wrong, but it sounds to me like in the US The Hobbit never formally was under copyright due to not fulfilling the requirements when published. It remained that way until 1996 when URAA made the UK copyright valid in the US. Golan v Holder then affirmed that public domain works could be copyrighted under those special circumstances.
jerf 5y ago
Metaphors don't work here. Real browser pages have code which could conceivably have EULAs, plus you may be in a EULA for a paid service, you have cookie agreements involved (and a similar question could be raised, is your browser obligated to return cookies once given?), the page may also already be interactive (if modifying a page is stipulated to be wrong, what about browser automation driving something "intended" to be manual process? There are contracts the page provider has with their advertisers. Things other than the end-user or page provider may already have had their fingers in the pie (ISPs blocking specific pages, even replacing ads with their own in the network). There's a lot of parties involved in a modern page with all sorts of relationships to each other. There's also a scale here; it's one thing to modify your own copy of a book but if you provide a service that modifies other people's copies (computer style, with virtually no effort in a fraction of a second), how is that different from publishing a modified copy? What impact do those differences have on the question? All of these things are important and none translate into the book, or any other simple physical metaphor. My summary answer would be that the status of ad blocking legally is deeply unclear if you really start analyzing it, in all sorts of ways, in ways that different legal jurisdictions will almost certainly rule differently on for all the different individual questions, and almost certainly with no coherence between the individual rulings.
- wvenable 5y ago
  This is only about copyright and copyright only applies to distribution of materials. You are free to modify any copyrighted work for your own purposes as long as you don't distribute your modifications. Distribution is the key.
  - jerf 5y ago
    Then, while I'm not convinced it is anywhere near as separable as you believe, at the very least the book metaphor completely fails to capture the ability to distribute modifications as a first-class entity existing on its own, in this case, block lists and other HTML modification instructions, that can result in millions of people getting the "same" modification in their hands. I called this the "patch hole" in the law over 20 years ago, in analogy to the Unix patch tool, and I still don't think I've seen a legal system cleanly grapple with what it means to be able to distribute modifications on their own. It is a qualitatively different process and result than having to distribute modified versions directly. It rather directly faces a deontology vs. consequentialism question... if two different processes (distributing changed contents directly vs. distributing patches to an end user and providing combination software) produce the exact same end results, on what basis will the law decide that one is OK and the other is not, since allowing people to distribute change lists provides an effective 100% workaround to the existing illegality of distributing changed works? I'm not trying to offer an answer here, I'm merely trying to establish that talking about "books" isn't going to give a good grasp on this situation. The metaphor simply doesn't work. It's far too simple to capture too many relevant issues.
School-Cotton 5y ago
> I could even sell my modified copy. Could you? I don’t find that at all obvious.
- ivanche 5y ago
  Why not? You've never sold one of your used books?
  - School-Cotton 5y ago
    Not one that I had edited to create a meaningfully different work from the original.
- adhesive_wombat 5y ago
  You can sell your copy, no matter what you have done to it, at least by the First Sale Doctrine in the US, and similar elsewhere. What you can't do is sell the rights to the modified work, since they're in addition to the original work. When/if the copyright in the original expires, then you can (and you will have your own copyright in the modifications if they're substantial enough). Crucially, you also can't make any copies of the modified work and sell or distribute them, so your derivative will be a legally-enforced one-off. It doesn't mean that you can't profit from your modification of another's work (maybe someone will pay for your marginalia), but it does mean that you can't profit from the unauthorized duplication of another's work while their copyright subsists.
  - sabas123 5y ago
    > You can sell your copy, no matter what you have done to it, at least by the First Sale Doctrine in the US, and similar elsewhere. If you have a personal created copy of a copyrighted product which you do not have the rights to, you don't have a right to sell this copy right? (Specifically talking about the copy and not the modification)
    - elsjaako 5y ago
      In the example you don't make a copy. You buy a physical book (also called "a copy of the book"). You don't make the copy, you buy it from a legitimate seller. Then you can modify that physical book, and sell it again. If you want to sell a second one of the work you made, you need to buy another physical book (another "copy of the Hobbit"), modify that physical object in the same way, and sell it again. You would own the copyright to your changes, so no one else could modify "the Hobbit" the same way, and no one else could publish instructions on how to do the modifications yourself.
sabas123 5y ago
This example actually popped up in my Patent class. This is what I remembered. You are allowed to create a copy (and thus also in printed form) of copyrighted material, _only_ for private and personal use. i.e you _must_ recreate it yourself. As for selling a modified version, if it isn't modified enough than you still infringe copyright of the original author. With "enough" being something that needs to be defended in court if challenged.
- deleted 5y ago
  [deleted]
- tylorr 5y ago
  What about if I bought a book from a bookstore then I wrote in the margins or highlighted some text and then sold it to used bookstore?
  - pbhjpbhj 5y ago
    In my personal opinion the modification is insubstantial so for copyright purposes you haven't created a derivative work. There are probably ways you could make it substantial but how would the rights holders ever know. It might technically be a tort but there's no damage; what would a rights holder win?
    - nybble41 5y ago
      > It might technically be a tort but there's no damage; what would a rights holder win? Statutory damages. Which highlights the essential flaw in allowing statutory damages.
- Dylan16807 5y ago
  > As for selling a modified version, if it isn't modified enough than you still infringe copyright of the original author. With "enough" being something that needs to be defended in court if challenged. Hang on. Does "modified version" mean the same physical copy I bought and then modified, or a copy I made myself and then modified? The way you worded that sounds like you're talking about both, but the former makes no sense. Why would it be a copyright violation to buy a book, white-out one sentence, and resell it? And elsjaako was definitely talking about the former.
svnpenn 5y ago
I am nog allowed tot say
elsjaako 5y ago
Turns out I'm wrong, at least in Germany and France. Authors have "moral rights of integrity" over their work, which means you can't modify a work without permission of the author, even if you own it. https://meta.wikimedia.org/wiki/Wikilegal/Moral_right_of_integrity#European_Protection_of_The_Right_to_Integrity https://meta.wikimedia.org/wiki/Wikilegal/Moral_right_of_int...
- sabageti 5y ago
  You forgot the important, the moral part is only enforced if: “the modification in question does not have to be detrimental to the author's honor or reputation in order to qualify as a violation of the right of integrity.”
- jhgb 5y ago
  I'm mildly skeptical that a court would accept this reasoning in cases of works with many copies and someone making a change to one such personal copy.
- contravariant 5y ago
  Well that's a bloody stupid idea.
  - movedx 5y ago
    Is it? Is it that simple? I write a book about the suffering of a particular minority. The book sells internationally and earns awards. My name becomes recognised globally. Someone buys many copies of the book, modifies them to say the opposite of my intended point, making me look like, say, a racist, and distributes it. Now is it stupid? My point is your name being attached to a particular piece of work means you're name is directly associated with that work and what it represents. Any changes to the work could alter the perception that others have of you, towards the negative, and you've done nothing wrong. We've recently seen what happens in a post-truth society when someone says something (usually online) that's not true about another person and the negativity generated towards that person happens before the truth is revealed (and promptly ignored anyway.) Do we really need more of that?
banana_giraffe 5y ago
Or, you can buy a ClearPlay DVD player (and, I guess they make Bluray players now too). RCA had a similar device as well, but I think it vanished from the market. It's a DVD player with a service that downloads timecodes to skip all the naughty bits in movies that you play on it.

ajayyy 5y ago

If you made software that took a legally obtained copy of "The Hobbit", modified it locally according to a scripted patch, then displayed that to the user, then that would be similar. Adblocking happens locally. This is similar to game mods.

amalcon 5y ago

Somewhat offtopic trivia, but up until 2012 in the US, you were actually allowed to print a new copy of The Hobbit. Many publishers with no relationship to Tolkien or his estate have done this. Due to a quirk in international copyright law, it had entered the public domain in the US. A court ruling in 2012 restored copyright to the work, which is super weird since there are a lot of unauthorized copies still floating around.

SahAssar 5y ago
This sounded far too intriguing to not google a bit. I'm guessing you're talking about this? > J.R.R. Tolkien first tangled with copyright law in the mid-1960s when ACE Books discovered that the copyrights for The Lord of the Rings and The Hobbit had not been properly secured in the United States by his American publisher. ACE Books opportunistically published unauthorized paperback editions of those books in the United States. Until that time Tolkien’s books had only been available in hardback. Tolkien and his publishers reacted quickly by publishing their own authorized paperback editions, but in order to secure copyright in the United States again Tolkien was forced to revise both stories (thus confusing the issue of what is canonical in Middle-earth for his readers). > There remained a question over the status of the ACE Books edition until several years ago, when a long-running complaint by the Tolkien Estate was finally settled with payment to the author’s heirs. Until that time some people in the entertainment and publishing industry argued that there was still a copyright “hole” pertaining to Tolkien’s works in the United States. Source: https://middle-earth.xenite.org/why-are-some-people-sued-over-hobbit-while-others-are-not/ https://middle-earth.xenite.org/why-are-some-people-sued-ove...
- jjk166 5y ago
  They're referring to Golan v Holder, which affirmed that the US could retroactively restore copyright to works that had fallen into the public domain in the US under the US's old copyright laws, but which remained protected by foreign copyright laws which the US had adjusted to be in compliance with. So basically The Hobbit, like many other works, was copyright protected in other countries, but had fallen into the public domain in the US; when the US agreed to honor the foreign copyrights, it became copyrighted in the US as well. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Golan_v._Holder https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Golan_v._Holder
  - SahAssar 5y ago
    Seems like they are related, from reading https://law.marquette.edu/facultyblog/2011/10/one-public-domain-to-rule-them-all/ https://law.marquette.edu/facultyblog/2011/10/one-public-dom... Please correct me if I'm wrong, but it sounds to me like in the US The Hobbit never formally was under copyright due to not fulfilling the requirements when published. It remained that way until 1996 when URAA made the UK copyright valid in the US. Golan v Holder then affirmed that public domain works could be copyrighted under those special circumstances.

jerf 5y ago

Metaphors don't work here. Real browser pages have code which could conceivably have EULAs, plus you may be in a EULA for a paid service, you have cookie agreements involved (and a similar question could be raised, is your browser obligated to return cookies once given?), the page may also already be interactive (if modifying a page is stipulated to be wrong, what about browser automation driving something "intended" to be manual process? There are contracts the page provider has with their advertisers. Things other than the end-user or page provider may already have had their fingers in the pie (ISPs blocking specific pages, even replacing ads with their own in the network). There's a lot of parties involved in a modern page with all sorts of relationships to each other. There's also a scale here; it's one thing to modify your own copy of a book but if you provide a service that modifies other people's copies (computer style, with virtually no effort in a fraction of a second), how is that different from publishing a modified copy? What impact do those differences have on the question? All of these things are important and none translate into the book, or any other simple physical metaphor. My summary answer would be that the status of ad blocking legally is deeply unclear if you really start analyzing it, in all sorts of ways, in ways that different legal jurisdictions will almost certainly rule differently on for all the different individual questions, and almost certainly with no coherence between the individual rulings.

wvenable 5y ago
This is only about copyright and copyright only applies to distribution of materials. You are free to modify any copyrighted work for your own purposes as long as you don't distribute your modifications. Distribution is the key.
- jerf 5y ago
  Then, while I'm not convinced it is anywhere near as separable as you believe, at the very least the book metaphor completely fails to capture the ability to distribute modifications as a first-class entity existing on its own, in this case, block lists and other HTML modification instructions, that can result in millions of people getting the "same" modification in their hands. I called this the "patch hole" in the law over 20 years ago, in analogy to the Unix patch tool, and I still don't think I've seen a legal system cleanly grapple with what it means to be able to distribute modifications on their own. It is a qualitatively different process and result than having to distribute modified versions directly. It rather directly faces a deontology vs. consequentialism question... if two different processes (distributing changed contents directly vs. distributing patches to an end user and providing combination software) produce the exact same end results, on what basis will the law decide that one is OK and the other is not, since allowing people to distribute change lists provides an effective 100% workaround to the existing illegality of distributing changed works? I'm not trying to offer an answer here, I'm merely trying to establish that talking about "books" isn't going to give a good grasp on this situation. The metaphor simply doesn't work. It's far too simple to capture too many relevant issues.

School-Cotton 5y ago

> I could even sell my modified copy. Could you? I don’t find that at all obvious.

ivanche 5y ago
Why not? You've never sold one of your used books?
- School-Cotton 5y ago
  Not one that I had edited to create a meaningfully different work from the original.
adhesive_wombat 5y ago
You can sell your copy, no matter what you have done to it, at least by the First Sale Doctrine in the US, and similar elsewhere. What you can't do is sell the rights to the modified work, since they're in addition to the original work. When/if the copyright in the original expires, then you can (and you will have your own copyright in the modifications if they're substantial enough). Crucially, you also can't make any copies of the modified work and sell or distribute them, so your derivative will be a legally-enforced one-off. It doesn't mean that you can't profit from your modification of another's work (maybe someone will pay for your marginalia), but it does mean that you can't profit from the unauthorized duplication of another's work while their copyright subsists.
- sabas123 5y ago
  > You can sell your copy, no matter what you have done to it, at least by the First Sale Doctrine in the US, and similar elsewhere. If you have a personal created copy of a copyrighted product which you do not have the rights to, you don't have a right to sell this copy right? (Specifically talking about the copy and not the modification)
  - elsjaako 5y ago
    In the example you don't make a copy. You buy a physical book (also called "a copy of the book"). You don't make the copy, you buy it from a legitimate seller. Then you can modify that physical book, and sell it again. If you want to sell a second one of the work you made, you need to buy another physical book (another "copy of the Hobbit"), modify that physical object in the same way, and sell it again. You would own the copyright to your changes, so no one else could modify "the Hobbit" the same way, and no one else could publish instructions on how to do the modifications yourself.

sabas123 5y ago

This example actually popped up in my Patent class. This is what I remembered. You are allowed to create a copy (and thus also in printed form) of copyrighted material, _only_ for private and personal use. i.e you _must_ recreate it yourself. As for selling a modified version, if it isn't modified enough than you still infringe copyright of the original author. With "enough" being something that needs to be defended in court if challenged.

deleted 5y ago
[deleted]
tylorr 5y ago
What about if I bought a book from a bookstore then I wrote in the margins or highlighted some text and then sold it to used bookstore?
- pbhjpbhj 5y ago
  In my personal opinion the modification is insubstantial so for copyright purposes you haven't created a derivative work. There are probably ways you could make it substantial but how would the rights holders ever know. It might technically be a tort but there's no damage; what would a rights holder win?
  - nybble41 5y ago
    > It might technically be a tort but there's no damage; what would a rights holder win? Statutory damages. Which highlights the essential flaw in allowing statutory damages.
Dylan16807 5y ago
> As for selling a modified version, if it isn't modified enough than you still infringe copyright of the original author. With "enough" being something that needs to be defended in court if challenged. Hang on. Does "modified version" mean the same physical copy I bought and then modified, or a copy I made myself and then modified? The way you worded that sounds like you're talking about both, but the former makes no sense. Why would it be a copyright violation to buy a book, white-out one sentence, and resell it? And elsjaako was definitely talking about the former.

svnpenn 5y ago

I am nog allowed tot say

elsjaako 5y ago

Turns out I'm wrong, at least in Germany and France. Authors have "moral rights of integrity" over their work, which means you can't modify a work without permission of the author, even if you own it. https://meta.wikimedia.org/wiki/Wikilegal/Moral_right_of_integrity#European_Protection_of_The_Right_to_Integrity https://meta.wikimedia.org/wiki/Wikilegal/Moral_right_of_int...

sabageti 5y ago
You forgot the important, the moral part is only enforced if: “the modification in question does not have to be detrimental to the author's honor or reputation in order to qualify as a violation of the right of integrity.”
jhgb 5y ago
I'm mildly skeptical that a court would accept this reasoning in cases of works with many copies and someone making a change to one such personal copy.
contravariant 5y ago
Well that's a bloody stupid idea.
- movedx 5y ago
  Is it? Is it that simple? I write a book about the suffering of a particular minority. The book sells internationally and earns awards. My name becomes recognised globally. Someone buys many copies of the book, modifies them to say the opposite of my intended point, making me look like, say, a racist, and distributes it. Now is it stupid? My point is your name being attached to a particular piece of work means you're name is directly associated with that work and what it represents. Any changes to the work could alter the perception that others have of you, towards the negative, and you've done nothing wrong. We've recently seen what happens in a post-truth society when someone says something (usually online) that's not true about another person and the negativity generated towards that person happens before the truth is revealed (and promptly ignored anyway.) Do we really need more of that?

banana_giraffe 5y ago

Or, you can buy a ClearPlay DVD player (and, I guess they make Bluray players now too). RCA had a similar device as well, but I think it vanished from the market. It's a DVD player with a service that downloads timecodes to skip all the naughty bits in movies that you play on it.