3 ms·

Isn't "[Race] is given extra help to own houses" the same as "[not-Race] is given no extra help to own houses"?

• lumost 6y ago
  On average [Not-Race] has more wealth to afford houses, or home ownership is more common than [Race] in these programs. You do see anger when individuals perceive they can't afford homes, school, or other big ticket items and perceive that they aren't given help - but that isn't quite the same as denying people something.
  • pbhjpbhj 6y ago
    >On average [Not-Race] has more wealth to afford houses // Which is fine if you're part of that the well-off, but if you're just a person and not benefitted by the categroy association with rich people who happen to be the same race -- a simplistic association that discriminatory, racist people make -- then you're shit out of luck. Discriminating against people is denying them something, it's denying them a fair shot, fair treatment by the government. Regardless of their sex or skin colour they deserve fair opportunity.
  • yjftsjthsd-h 6y ago
    > perceive that they aren't given help - but that isn't quite the same as denying people something. How is that not denying them help? > On average [Not-Race] has more wealth to afford houses, or home ownership is more common than [Race] in these programs. So why not just have your aid program be based on wealth, rather than race?