4 ms·

Do you think that business owners should be allowed to fire people for coming in to work under the influence of other prescription medications?

• Dylan16807 12y ago
  Depends on the details of the prescription and how affected they are. I wouldn't expect the needed doses to be very high? Then it wouldn't be an issue in the same way it shouldn't be a problem to have a single drink before work and a BAC of .02 If the prescription unavoidably interferes with work competence then I'm not sure where things go other than "complicated".
• paulhauggis 12y ago
  Does it effect their job? Will it make them a danger to others while being under the influence (a good example would be in a warehouse handling packages, equipment, etc)? If so, yes. The issue is that many business owners will be held liable for the actions of a person under the influence while at work because they allowed it to happen. There needs to be a balance between employee and employer rights or complete tort reform to make the person under the influence completely responsible for their actions.
  • gress 12y ago
    These are good questions to which the answer 'the employer gets to be the judge' doesn't seem adequate. But yes, I agree that there is a problem with the current diffuse responsibility that creates terrible incentives for everyone.
  • samatman 12y ago
    Let me propose that, for any category of job, we may create a test which is a) safe to perform and b) indicates if the worker is able to do that job. You can therefore check, without prejudice, if a worker is capable of doing that job, without invasive inquiries about their bodies and private life. And should. And should be legally barred from otherwise testing employee competence.
  • Lawtonfogle 12y ago
    >Does it effect their job? What happens when someone being pregnant affects their job?
    • semi-extrinsic 12y ago
      In civilized countries they are then temporarily given different assignments which they are able to perform more satisfactorily, or they go talk to their GP and are given part-time or full time paid sick leave.
      • Lawtonfogle 12y ago
        So then why can't the same be done for someone under the effects of a drug prescribed by a doctor? If you can fire someone for taking a drug to fix some ailment that they never choose to have due to the impact on their performance, then it would make sense that one could fire someone for choosing to become pregnant once it impacts their performance. Both or neither.
        • dragonwriter 12y ago
          > So then why can't the same be done for someone under the effects of a drug prescribed by a doctor? It is -- reasonable accommodation for temporary disability and mandatory medical leave for medical conditions (including those resulting from the requirements of treating some other condition) that can't be accommodated are typical requirements in civilized countries.
          • Lawtonfogle 11y ago
            This chain was in response to the person saying they should be able to fire someone for use of medically prescribe marijuana. I was asking for someone who agrees with that viewpoint to denote the difference.