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" not that there is much difference.". Curios, can you explain, why there is not much difference ?
by __Joker 12y ago
" not that there is much difference.". Curios, can you explain, why there is not much difference ?
- scott_karana 12y agoEach corpus is dauntingly large (arcane?), making knowledge of the source difficult to determine for casual onlookers. Both have exerted tremendous influences (both overt and subtle) on traditional Western culture.
- ableal 12y agoThey were contemporaneous, and both pretty much hailed as the best use of English around. To my (foreign) ear, they sound similar. Some writers even go so far as fictionalizing Shakespeare sticking his finger in the KJV - I think Anthony Burgess did that.