4 ms·
Yeah, I've meant entangling 2 & 3 pair and measuring 1 & 4. But my concern is if we can still use this trick after measuring 1 & 4?
by krcz 13y ago
Yeah, I've meant entangling 2 & 3 pair and measuring 1 & 4. But my concern is if we can still use this trick after measuring 1 & 4?
- pep-ok 13y agoI am not sure I understand you.
- krcz 13y agoI hope that can make things clear: http://imgur.com/5mfB4m0 http://imgur.com/5mfB4m0 .
- Dylan16807 13y ago>For example, last year a team showed that entanglement swapping still works even if they make the projective measurement after they’ve already measured the polarizations of photons 1 and 4. So yes, they can. Which leaves me wondering which option is right: A. I'm missing something major here. B. They can measure 1 and 4 and then decide whether to use their box on 2 and 3 and contradict causality. C. This experiment isn't actually exciting at all and the 'entanglement' isn't the good kind.
- scotty79 13y agoThis can't possibly work because it would mean that you cou ld measure 1&4 and get result that proves that they were not entangled and then entangle 2&3. Of course it's possible that 2&3 entanglement trick doesn't always work and it never works if preceeding 1&4 measurment proved that they were unentangled. But this is some serious cheating. :)
- deleted 13y ago[deleted]