4 ms·
Could they possibly create 1-2 and 3-4 entangled pairs at the same time, measure 1 & 4 and then use this "projective measurement" trick to entangle 3 and 4? If
by krcz 13y ago
Could they possibly create 1-2 and 3-4 entangled pairs at the same time, measure 1 & 4 and then use this "projective measurement" trick to entangle 3 and 4? If so, could this affect the measurements of 1 and 4 in the past?
- pep-ok 13y agoyes, i think, if you mean 2 and 3. you have 1-2 and 3-4, then you entangle 1-4 which I think should lead to 2-3 entanglement without the 2-3 couple ever interacting at all. I think it is called entanglement teleportation.
- krcz 13y agoYeah, I've meant entangling 2 & 3 pair and measuring 1 & 4. But my concern is if we can still use this trick after measuring 1 & 4?
- pep-ok 13y agoI am not sure I understand you.
- krcz 13y agoI hope that can make things clear: http://imgur.com/5mfB4m0 http://imgur.com/5mfB4m0 .
- Dylan16807 13y ago>For example, last year a team showed that entanglement swapping still works even if they make the projective measurement after they’ve already measured the polarizations of photons 1 and 4. So yes, they can. Which leaves me wondering which option is right: A. I'm missing something major here. B. They can measure 1 and 4 and then decide whether to use their box on 2 and 3 and contradict causality. C. This experiment isn't actually exciting at all and the 'entanglement' isn't the good kind.
- scotty79 13y agoThis can't possibly work because it would mean that you cou ld measure 1&4 and get result that proves that they were not entangled and then entangle 2&3. Of course it's possible that 2&3 entanglement trick doesn't always work and it never works if preceeding 1&4 measurment proved that they were unentangled. But this is some serious cheating. :)
- deleted 13y ago[deleted]