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It’s simply that, in English, there is no indefinite plural article — or, equivalently, that the indefinite plural article is null. So ‘they are doctors’ is con
by bradrn 13d ago
It’s simply that, in English, there is no indefinite plural article — or, equivalently, that the indefinite plural article is null. So ‘they are doctors’ is consistent with the behaviour of plural nouns elsewhere.
Contrast this with, for example, French, where the indefinite singular un(e) correspond to the indefinite plural des: La boulangerie vend des baguettes ‘the bakery sells baguettes’ (whereas English cannot say *‘a baguettes’). But as in Spanish, professions take no article either way: Il est médecin / Ils sont médecins. So all three languages are self-consistent, just in their own ways.
- hbn 13d agoEnglish still feels hard to explain when things sound natural and when they don't. You can say "there are some vendors in the street" and it sounds normal. But if you were to say "they are some vendors" it sounds weird. It's pretty firmly more natural to say "they are vendors."
- bradrn 13d agoOh, certainly, as is the case for any language! In the case you mention, I note that Huddleston & Pullum in their Cambridge Grammar of the English Language specifically call ‘some’ an existential determiner. As is usual with them, this is an insightful observation: you use ‘some <noun>’ specifically in order to say that there exists some set of things drawn from some larger set or in some configuration. You say ‘there are some vendors in the street’ because you’re drawing attention to their existence in the street (and indeed ‘there is/are’ is the prototypical English expression for existentials). You don’t say ‘they are some vendors’, because the use of ‘they’ implies some specific group of vendors already known to both speaker and listener — highlighting their existence again feels weird. (Of course, this analysis is still incomplete. At some point you simply have to list all the specific ways in which ‘some’ is used — which, indeed, is exactly what Huddleston & Pullum do. Furthermore I’m certain that there is some discourse context in which ‘they are some vendors’ would be natural, even though I haven’t managed to think of one just yet.)
- schoen 13d agoI'm not sure this is the best achievable example, but maybe: "The street vendors have decided to oppose the ordinance." "But I thought Mike and Jacob said they support the ordinance. And Julia! Aren't they vendors?" "They are some vendors, but most vendors take the opposite position."
- subarctic 13d agoThat one is more natural without the word "some" imo
- schoen 13d agoI agree, so it's still not an ideal example.
- lelanthran 13d agoDepends where the stress is. "They are some vendors, not all vendors" is natural. "They are vendors, not all vendors"is equally natural. Written without stress indicators, most dialog can sound unnatural.
- thaumasiotes 13d ago> "They are vendors, not all vendors" is equally natural. No it isn't. For example, I am a native speaker, and I have no idea what you wanted that sentence to say. There is no available contrast between the emphasized words, leaving me mystified as to why they're both emphasized. Looking up through the context, I think what you want is "They are vendors, but they aren't all vendors." That's still not a felicitous way to express it; you'd be better off with "They are vendors, but they aren't every vendor." (Because "They aren't all vendors" is most naturally interpreted to mean "not all of them are vendors", with all as an adverb, as opposed to "not all vendors are one of them", with all as a determiner.)
- deleted 12d ago[deleted]
- jrmg 13d agoAnd “they are some vendors” usually actually means “they are excellent vendors”!
- 1-more 13d agoReally depends on how you say “some”
- rectang 13d agoI will die on the hill that "SOME PIG" from Charlotte's Web was merely an existential determiner.
- OJFord 13d agoExceptional rather than excellent I'd say, i.e. not necessarily positively exceptional.
- chuckadams 12d agoEven more common with "the". "They are THE vendors", which is either to say that those are definitely the vendors referred to elsewhere, or that they represent the archetype of vendors (whatever that is). Language is weird.
- Izkata 12d agoYeah, definitely inflection-based. A more relaxed one would indicate "a small amount", which for the opposite could be directly swapped with "many".
- user43928 13d agoAnd doesn't "some vendors they are" mean the opposite?
- chuckadams 12d agoYes, unless Yoda you are.
- cycomanic 12d agoBack in the days when I had to take some latin for my studies, our lecturer always used to say "don't ask my why, latin might be more logical than most languages, but it's a language not math. Languages are not logical". It actually became a bit of a running gag because we still had some students who needed to ask why for every rule.
- thaumasiotes 13d agoThere's a reason your parent comment expected some to be "an article". It is the plural of a(n). It's just that the term "article" was defined not to include it. There's a different word for the part of speech.
- tsimionescu 12d agoNo, some is not an indefinite article, it is a quantifier word, just like "few" or "many". This is most easily visible in the fact that you can say "A: How many pears should I buy? B: Just buy some." - which would not be possible for an article, which must always be attached to a noun (you would never answer "Just buy a" in response to that question).
- thaumasiotes 12d ago> No, some is not an indefinite article, it is a quantifier word, just like "few" or "many". Quantifier words and articles are all the same part of speech. It's still true that the plural of a(n) is some. There are other ways to use some - for example, it can be singular too - but that doesn't affect the question.
- tsimionescu 12d agoArticles and quantifiers are different parts of speech in most grammars. Articles are specifically different in having no independent meaning, more similar to prepositions than to adjectives (which some is classified as in its use as a quantifier that we were discussing here). English just doesn't have an indefinite plural article. This is not actually that uncommon - German has the same property, for example.
- spider-mario 12d agoInterestingly, when you speak about a category as a whole, in English, you use the null article (“cats meow” or “I like apples”), whereas in French, you would use the definite article (« les chats miaulent », « j’aime les pommes »).
- inkyoto 12d ago«cats» in «cats meow» and «apples» in «I like apples» are not categories, they are bare plural noun phrases with generic reference. They refer generically to members of the relevant class, rather than naming the class itself. Both are count nouns, and, in English, a plural count noun takes the null article when it is used with generic or non-specific indefinite reference rather than to denote a contextually identifiable set. However, in Cat is divided into numerous breeds. Cat excludes animals such as dogs and foxes. Apple excludes such fruits as pears and peaches. Apple contains numerous cultivated varieties. «cat» and «apple» are categories.
- spider-mario 12d ago“Cats meow” is “about” the whole of what makes up the category as opposed to parts of it. I thought it quite clear that that’s what I meant. If I ask you “could you please tell me more about Barack Obama?”, I would expect you to tell me about the person that the name “Barack Obama” refers to, not about the name “Barack Obama”.
- inkyoto 12d ago> “Cats meow” is “about” the whole of what makes up the category as opposed to parts of it. No. That is, at best, a highly informal proposition and, at worst, a frivolous disposition masquerading as a definition of «category». Bare plurals can have generic or kind-related interpretations (the one you refer to as «category»); they do not entail reference to every individual member of the class: a mute cat can't meow, and a rotten apple is unlikely to be liked. The Obama analogy illustrates reference vs mention, but that distinction is orthogonal to the actual semantic disagreement.