3 ms·
No. He's saying that the court would not use 18 USC 1030(a) to charge someone of a crime when they did something completely normal and innocuous but which was t
by lambda 14y ago
No. He's saying that the court would not use 18 USC 1030(a) to charge someone of a crime when they did something completely normal and innocuous but which was technically against the language in 18 USC 1030(a) because it was poorly drafted.
He's saying that the courts can make distinctions between what Congress intended (to make it illegal to bypass computer security systems without permission), and what the law might technically forbid but what is completely normal and innocuous to do (like browsing someone's website without their explicit permission).