4 ms·
I guess that there is no 'discrimination' at all here (7-14% difference is too small to be conscious discrimination). The pay gap must be fully explained by the
by anovikov 14y ago
I guess that there is no 'discrimination' at all here (7-14% difference is too small to be conscious discrimination). The pay gap must be fully explained by the maternity leaves resulting in skills/experience gaps. Take the girls' salaries before their first maternity leave and i bet you will get same or higher salaries than guys' of the same age.
I hire guys and girls, and i usually find girls to be more picky about choosing an employer, and demanding a higher pay, and usually worth it (i don't remember a guy working on a Friday night, girls routinely do that).
- bluehat 14y agoWhy does discrimination have to be conscious to exist?
- anovikov 14y agoAgree, it must not. But anyway, i'd like to see figures for women' salaries before they have their first child. I really doubt they are lower than guys'. Lower pay after maternity leave is a certain fact, but not necessarily a discrimination.
- bluehat 14y agoI would be super interested in seeing this too!
- anovikov 14y agoI understand i may be a bit late on this, but here is some kind of data (not sure about its reliability): http://www.nytimes.com/2011/12/14/us/14iht-letter14.html?_r=1 http://www.nytimes.com/2011/12/14/us/14iht-letter14.html?_r=... ... And a study shows that in most U.S. cities, single, childless women under 30 are making an average of 8 percent more money than their male counterparts, with Atlanta and Miami in the lead at 20 percent. ... Still, society-wide, gender gap still exists. So it must be due to the rural workers (more manual work the kind of men are naturally a better fit for -> not a discrimination), and mainly, parenting. So it's a question if there is a discrimination here at all.