3 ms·
For those of you wondering why on Earth such a simple function wouldn't be well-behaved, it can help to think about what you can do with the conjugate. In part
by rachofsunshine 2y ago
For those of you wondering why on Earth such a simple function wouldn't be well-behaved, it can help to think about what you can do with the conjugate.
In particular, since sums of holomorphic functions are holomorphic, the sum f(z) = z + z* of the identity function g(z) = z and conjugate function h(z) = z* would need to be holomorphic. But z + z* cancels out the imaginary part of z and therefore maps the complex plane to the real line - and it should be obvious that a map from C to R cannot possibly preserve the properties of C in any intuitive way.
Roughly speaking, the conjugate fails to be holomorphic because it maps C to its mirror image, rather than C itself, in much the same way that reflecting a circle is different from rotating it.
- bobbylarrybobby 2y agoConstant functions are holomorphic without preserving the properties of C The issue is that the Cauchy Riemann equations don't hold. (You would need 1==-1)
- rachofsunshine 2y agoPicard's theorem tells us constant functions are the only example of that, though (more or less because 0 == -0 [1] and that's only true for 0). [1] I sincerely apologize to anyone who works with floats for this statement.
- eapriv 2y agoNo need to apologize, 0 == -0 even if we are talking about floats.
- amelius 2y agoIs there an analytic function that approximates the conjugate, and can this approximation be made better and better by making the function more complicated? Edit: no, it can't be done because the Cauchy-Riemann equations make no sense here.
- gunnihinn 2y agoFor any smooth function (like the conjugate) it makes sense to ask whether there exist holomorphic functions that approximate it arbitrarily well. However: Suppose that for every n > 0 there exists a holomorphic function f_n such that |f_n(z) - z| < 1/n for all z. Then |f_n(z)| <= |f_n(z) - z| + |z*| = |z| + 1/n by the triangle inequality. A consequence of Liouville's theorem is that any entire holomorphic function with polynomial growth is a polynomial; here in particular we would need to have f_n(z) = a_n z + b_n for some complex numbers a_n and b_n. For real x we would have |(a_n - 1)x + b_n| < 1/n for all x, so a_n = 1. For imaginary iy we would have |(a_n + 1)iy + b_n| < 1/n for all y, so a_n = -1, which is a contradiction. In fact, if a sequence of holomorphic functions converges uniformely on compact sets, the limit is itself holomorphic because of Cauchy's theorem.