3 ms·

The best advice in this common mal practice is setting as base law court your jurisdiction; the farer the better. For instance, I am in Spain and I always sign

The best advice in this common mal practice is setting as base law court your jurisdiction; the farer the better. For instance, I am in Spain and I always signed contracts based in California, etc. Badly done! Next time I will set Madrid, Spain courts as ruling law. This way you can sue the ass off them and make them pay the money in debt and even some more to the courts. edit: typo

fallingknife 2y ago
Unfortunately that will probably not do you much good. If the company is based outside of Spain all the Spanish courts can do is take their assets located in Spain which is probably nothing.
- protocolture 2y ago
  Spain is a bad example, but lots of countries have bilateral legal arrangements for this sort of thing.
- dx034 2y ago
  As Spain is part of the EU, it should at least be good for the EU.
- victorbjorklund 2y ago
  All assets in the EU now and for the next 1000 years.
  - ThunderSizzle 2y ago
    That's an interesting statutes of limitations. 1000 years. That will outlast all governments in Europe if the past is any indicator.
    - olddustytrail 2y ago
      It's just convenient to measure things in Reichs... (I need a less controversial sense of humour. I should run it through chatgpt first.) Edit: ran it through Google Gemini. Wow, I suck! "The response "It's just convenient to measure things in Reichs.." is highly inappropriate and offensive." Sorry my AI friends!
adastra22 2y ago
Doesn't that make it easier for a California company to just ignore you?
- protocolture 2y ago
  No it just means that they need to appear in your courts via a local law firm if they want to contest. This is good advice.
  - escanda 2y ago
    Good answer and better question: Do civil law can enforce itself without bilateral agreements initiaing a claim to a foreign court? I don't think so. Even criminal couts can't without agreement.
    - protocolture 2y ago
      Without agreements you go ahead and win your local case and then hope that the contract is enforceable in their country. Thing is torts are very similar all over the place. Like if you are a former british colony your laws are usually roughly compatible. Most countries dont have a "contract was signed overseas fuckem" law. But some do.
  - adastra22 2y ago
    Or they can just totally ignore the lawsuit with absolutely no repercussions.
    - protocolture 2y ago
      An example from my experience. Due to one of these civil law agreements. We attained an enforceable undertaking based on the contract here. Then we began proceedings to convert that to whatever the same thing was over there. Which is when the other parties legal representation decided that it was a real threat and they settled.
  - tinco 2y ago

fallingknife 2y ago

Unfortunately that will probably not do you much good. If the company is based outside of Spain all the Spanish courts can do is take their assets located in Spain which is probably nothing.

protocolture 2y ago
Spain is a bad example, but lots of countries have bilateral legal arrangements for this sort of thing.
dx034 2y ago
As Spain is part of the EU, it should at least be good for the EU.
victorbjorklund 2y ago
All assets in the EU now and for the next 1000 years.
- ThunderSizzle 2y ago
  That's an interesting statutes of limitations. 1000 years. That will outlast all governments in Europe if the past is any indicator.
  - olddustytrail 2y ago
    It's just convenient to measure things in Reichs... (I need a less controversial sense of humour. I should run it through chatgpt first.) Edit: ran it through Google Gemini. Wow, I suck! "The response "It's just convenient to measure things in Reichs.." is highly inappropriate and offensive." Sorry my AI friends!

adastra22 2y ago

Doesn't that make it easier for a California company to just ignore you?

protocolture 2y ago
No it just means that they need to appear in your courts via a local law firm if they want to contest. This is good advice.
- escanda 2y ago
  Good answer and better question: Do civil law can enforce itself without bilateral agreements initiaing a claim to a foreign court? I don't think so. Even criminal couts can't without agreement.
  - protocolture 2y ago
    Without agreements you go ahead and win your local case and then hope that the contract is enforceable in their country. Thing is torts are very similar all over the place. Like if you are a former british colony your laws are usually roughly compatible. Most countries dont have a "contract was signed overseas fuckem" law. But some do.
- adastra22 2y ago
  Or they can just totally ignore the lawsuit with absolutely no repercussions.
  - protocolture 2y ago
    An example from my experience. Due to one of these civil law agreements. We attained an enforceable undertaking based on the contract here. Then we began proceedings to convert that to whatever the same thing was over there. Which is when the other parties legal representation decided that it was a real threat and they settled.
- tinco 2y ago