3 ms·

This sentiment feels right to me, but the numbers don't appear to support it: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homeownership_in_the_United_States#/media/File:Home

• jmclnx 2y ago
  In the page, seems you see a slight downward trend starting in 2004, 2005 is at 69%, 2015 is at 63.7%. The charts I see end in 2015, which maybe the rate could have increased. But I wonder how this is calculated. Say if a company/person owns hundreds of homes, would the company be counted as owning just 1 home or multiple homes. What is needed is a count of real people owning homes. So, if 1 person owns multiple homes, they are counted as 1 home owner with the total of all owned homes used to calculate the % value. That would give us a better comparison.
  • bittercynic 2y ago
    It's the number of homes occupied by their owner. The number of people/households who own their home is lower, since many homes are occupied by their owner plus others.