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Doesn't this mean that it has only decreased approximately as much as the market since the offer was made? Makes sense, if so.
by lazzlazzlazz 3y ago
Doesn't this mean that it has only decreased approximately as much as the market since the offer was made? Makes sense, if so.
- MattGaiser 3y agoWhich market are you referring to that has declined to 1/3 of its value?
- jhonof 3y agoThe market has not lost 66% approximately in 1 year, that would be a catastrophic decline.