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I’ve read that gin was much more affordable.

• nradov 3y ago
  Yes, that's true. Brandy had to be distilled from wine. And foreign brandy was subject to high import taxes. Thus it was only affordable to the upper classes. Gin can be distilled from much cheaper grain. "Drunk for a penny, Dead drunk for twopence, Clean straw for nothing." https://wtlh.wordpress.com/2016/11/30/drunk-for-a-pennydead-drunk-for-twopenceclean-straw-for-nothing/ https://wtlh.wordpress.com/2016/11/30/drunk-for-a-pennydead-...
  • n4r9 3y ago
    In fact the government was explicitly trying to encourage gin over brandy: > Between 1689 and 1697, the Government passed a range of legislation aimed at restricting brandy imports and encouraging gin production. Most importantly, the monopoly of the London Guild of Distillers was broken in 1690, thereby opening up the market in gin distillation. The production and consumption of English gin, which was then popular amongst politicians and even Queen Anne, was encouraged by the government. This encouragement was shown in the reduced taxes on the distillation of spirits. Additionally, no licenses were needed to make spirits, so distillers of spirits could have smaller, simpler workshops than brewers, who were required to serve food and provide shelter for patrons. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gin_Craze https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gin_Craze