> but why would someone being less rich also imply they're more able? And why would someone richer not be capable just as much? The less rich person must be ab

> but why would someone being less rich also imply they're more able? And why would someone richer not be capable just as much? The less rich person must be able to get in. The more rich person doesn't have to be able to get in. This means that the average rich person that got in is less able than the average less-rich person. Where do you disagree with this logic?