You claim you don’t have an answer, but then state that by simple rephrasing the answer is obvious? Can you specify a specific reason? There are historic examp

You claim you don’t have an answer, but then state that by simple rephrasing the answer is obvious? Can you specify a specific reason? There are historic examples of trade deals made for this reason such as with the Soviet Union or communist china. However I cannot think of an example where a country has given unilaterally favorable trade terms to a rival except out of fealty/tribute.