4 ms·
No, they (rarely) do Here’s a recent example - https://www.bbc.com/news/business-56248558 https://www.bbc.com/news/business-56248558
by boeingUH60 4y ago
No, they (rarely) do
Here’s a recent example - https://www.bbc.com/news/business-56248558 https://www.bbc.com/news/business-56248558
- kergonath 4y agoYou’re right, every treaty is a different beast and there are no absolutes. But the general principle is Further, 18 U.S.C. 3181 and 3184 permit the United States to extradite, without regard to the existence of a treaty, persons (other than citizens, nationals or permanent residents of the United States), who have committed crimes of violence against nationals of the United States in foreign countries. https://www.justice.gov/jm/jm-9-15000-international-extradition-and-related-matters#9-15.100 https://www.justice.gov/jm/jm-9-15000-international-extradit... If the applicable treaty or convention does not obligate the United States to extradite its citizens to a foreign country, the Secretary of State may, nevertheless, order the surrender to that country of a United States citizen whose extradition has been requested by that country if the other requirements of that treaty or convention are met. https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/3196 https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/3196
- Scoundreller 4y agoThose seem to be the mechanisms to extradite in the absence of a treaty. No point in having laws about treaties because ratified treaties trump the law (is my understanding).