You might be interested in some code that illustrates the problem of hidden variables and the EPR paradox: https://pastebin.com/J4ZUhG8e https://pastebin.com/J4

You might be interested in some code that illustrates the problem of hidden variables and the EPR paradox: https://pastebin.com/J4ZUhG8e https://pastebin.com/J4ZUhG8e. The issue is that we can't replicate what QM predicts (and experiments validate) using hidden variables without additional steps or assumptions. For example, in that code, there are a few possible ways we could still produce the QM correlation function with local hidden variables: 1. When we measure the first particle, we alter the second particle to produce the desired correlation. This is the communication loophole. If you move the particles far enough apart, it requires superluminal communication, which GR says is impossible. This is what Einstein was getting at in the EPR paper; if what the Copenhagen interpretation of QM says is true, and the particle is in both states at once, measuring it collapses it to a given state, and the other particle suddenly "knows" what it should be, even though the propagation of information through the universe has a speed limit. 2. We could define an additional hidden variable in [0,1], and do rejection sampling at the detector. Anything that is rejected is not detected, and we only deal with detected particles. This is the detection loophole. I'm not an expert, but this is the only one that really makes sense to me as a good candidate for a hidden variables theory, and I believe it's been ruled out by experiment. 3. We could bias the initial sampling of our hidden variables. The problem is, this requires that we know the setting of the detector ahead of time. As far as I understand it, this is essentially what superdeterminism comes down to: you know the experiment setting ahead of time because everything is completely deterministic, like a movie reel being rolled forwards. You can thus bias the initial sampling step to produce the QM correlation function. Aside from being unfalsifiable, it still leaves open the question of why this would happen. It essentially means that all QM experiments have predetermined outcomes, and for whatever reason, those outcomes are the outcomes we observe. Ultimately, it seems to me that Bell's inequality is more a statement about the fundamental incompatibility of quantum probability with classical mechanics and probability. If QM is correct, and it seems that it is, then you have to give up certain assumptions such as locality.