> However! In this discussion, no one has yet offered the hypothesis that the purported discrimination against men could be explained by men being objectively l

> However! In this discussion, no one has yet offered the hypothesis that the purported discrimination against men could be explained by men being objectively less suitable to work in female-dominated professions than women. Perhaps men have less "emotional iq" than women or something? Well, I'll bite. If you really want to go down this road we could also start talking about how women being given time off specifically for their menstrual cycle or menopause (the latter is being seriously discussed in the media etc.) when there are no equivalent allowances whatsoever for men (despite the fact that men die younger than women!) means that women are 'objectively less suitable' for work full stop. Have you stopped to consider why the HN audience may have reacted as they have, and aren't you in fact guilty of the very thing you are accusing them of, that is, jumping to a conclusion about their thinking etc?