3 ms·
The upshot of the discussion seems to be that the definitions of a Lisp and a Forth are so orthogonal that one person correctly say "most lisps have no relation
by joe_the_user 5y ago
The upshot of the discussion seems to be that the definitions of a Lisp and a Forth are so orthogonal that one person correctly say "most lisps have no relations to forth and vice versa" and another can correctly say "look, a lisp that's also a forth".
How conceptual orthogonality works.