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By that logic the poor in the US have the most power? As they pay generally close to zero direct taxes (indirectly they pay the corporate taxes and gas taxes a
by jrexilius 5y ago
By that logic the poor in the US have the most power? As they pay generally close to zero direct taxes (indirectly they pay the corporate taxes and gas taxes and such as hidden costs in their daily consumption)...
- techbio 5y agoPerhaps? If not individually then collectively, whether as motivation toward a cheaper food supply, or as a caution to those who are not poor but only a couple of defiant decisions from losing what they've gained. It seems counterintuitive, but GPs rule of thumb may hold even there. I think the problem is in comparing a few wealthy individuals or cabals (in control) to an enormous number of real people (each without much control at all). Poverty is negative power under the same hierarchy responsible for controlling positive power.
- jjoonathan 5y agoWe are looking for policy concessions. Not taking money from someone who doesn't have money to take isn't much of a policy concession. Also, as you point out, there are tons of indirect taxes on the poor, but other aspects of the policy status quo really drive it home -- poor social safety net, bad public transport, "public" schools funded with property tax, policies that make rent go up, shipping the jobs overseas, etc, etc. We even allow homeless spikes! My general point isn't so much that taxes are an ideal metric, it's that we should focus on measuring the status quo rather than measuring who won yesterday's wedge issue battles.
- jejones3141 5y agoHow is not giving something to someone equivalent to taking something from someone?
- techbio 5y agoThey are not equivalent at all, they are almost exactly opposite. Each would reverse the other.
- jjoonathan 5y agoHow is this distinction relevant to whether or not tallying wedge issues is sound methodology for identifying elites?
- pydry 5y ago>By that logic the poor in the US have the most power? No: https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2019/10/06/opinion/income-tax-rate-wealthy.html https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2019/10/06/opinion/incom... >indirectly they pay the corporate taxes Corporation tax incidence falls squarely on shareholders. Profit taxes affect those who are the beneficiary of profits, and the vast majority of the stock market is owned by the very, very wealthy. It's not unusual for people to be spoon-fed the exact opposite impression, of course.
- HPsquared 5y agoCosts of doing business get baked-in to the sale price.
- tonyedgecombe 5y agoCorporation tax isn’t a cost of doing business, it’s calculated after costs have been removed from revenue.
- techbio 5y agoThat seems to be a distinction without a difference, as they all are removed from net profits.
- imtringued 5y agoNo, there is a huge difference. Your company passes on VAT, sales tax, the income tax needed to hire workers and other taxes. The profits of the company are only relevant to investors, not consumers.
- jrexilius 5y agoBecause businesses forget every year what taxes are and don't factor them into the needed margins for a product?
- 5y ago
- neltnerb 5y agoSales tax is highly regressive (in the technical sense) and makes up a larger fraction of the income of a poor person.
- mensetmanusman 5y agoThe poor would be paying more taxes if their income had tracked productivity gains and GDP growth. Instead it substantially went to the 0.5%.