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The only difference in quantum physics is that there are actually two parallel universes: One in which you took out the red marble & one in which you took the b
by danbruc 5y ago
The only difference in quantum physics is that there are actually two parallel universes: One in which you took out the red marble & one in which you took the blue one. You don't know what universe you're in until you look at the marble, but still it doesn't help you to transmit a message to your friend.
I don't think it is helpful to talk about multiple universes, that makes a strong implication towards a many world interpretation. It is better to say that the difference is that in the classical case the decision who gets which marble happens when one of the marbles is taken out of the pouch while in the case of entanglement we do not really know when the decision happens but it does provably work differently than in the classical case. It might be that the decision is never truly made, that both outcomes happen in two parallel worlds, it might be that the decision is only made when one party inspects their marble, it might be that it happens at the same time as in the classical example, ...we don't know.
- narrator 5y agoOr, in the transactional interpretation, the other guy's marble sends a signal from the future back to your marble to change its color when you look at it.
- tbabb 5y ago> that makes a strong implication towards a many world interpretation You say that like it's a shortcoming. :) There are many who take the (very reasonable) position that the many worlds interpretation is the most epistemologically parsimonious one. Contrary to some misunderstandings of it, it doesn't "add" extra worlds; it removes the concept of "wave function collapse", and leaves all the other known laws of quantum mechanics completely unchanged. The "worlds" arise naturally as more and more particles in the environment become entangled with the measured system, and "wave function collapse" turns out to be the predicted observation of an observer who is themselves made out of quantum states. The only difference between many worlds and the "standard" Copenhagen interpretation is that Copenhagen adds that, at some point, the entanglement process stops, and a bunch of states in the wave function disappear. And it doesn't specify how, or why, or how to calculate when it will happen. Those that advocate for many worlds would point out that this extra epistemological burden is questionable, given that the correct prediction is made without it.
- danbruc 5y agoContrary to some misunderstandings of it, it doesn't "add" extra worlds; it removes the concept of "wave function collapse", and leaves all the other known laws of quantum mechanics completely unchanged. Yes, it gets rid of the collapse postulate, but no, it actually introduces many worlds. You can wiggle a bit around, claim that prior to the wave function collapse there are also many worlds in Copenhagen or whatnot, but in the end many worlds makes a metaphysical claim that two cats exist, one dead, one alive while Copenhagen claims only one cat exists in the end.
- tbabb 5y agoit actually introduces many worlds No, this is the misunderstanding that I'm talking about. The extra "worlds" follow directly and exclusively from the existence of the various basis states in a wave function, and the laws of entanglement. No other postulates are needed. Before the measurement/entanglement, the system and environment are independent, and can be written (|0> + |1>) ⊗ (|0> + |1>). After the entanglement, the wave function of the universe can no longer be factored that way, and the system and environment are in a joint state of |00> + |11>. The |00> and the |11> are the multiple "worlds", they show up— in both interpretations— whether you want them to be there or not. Copenhagen doesn't want them to be there, so it says that one of the |00> or |11> goes away... at some point... because [waves hands and mumbles]. Many worlds merely declines to do this, and that is legitimately the only difference between the two.
- danbruc 5y agoThe extra "worlds" follow directly and exclusively from the existence of the various basis states in a wave function, and the laws of entanglement. No other postulates are needed. The many worlds are in the entangled state but then the collapse postulate reduces them to one world. If you remove the collapse postulate you put them back in. And sure, the collapse postulate is an awful solution breaking unitary evolution and you have every right to reject it, but that does not change the fact that many world introduces - or at least not removes - additional worlds that are not there in Copenhagen.
- fnord77 5y agoin this example, what evidence is there that it works differently than in the classical case?
- ammon 5y agoThat's exactly what the article we're all commenting on is about!
- joe_the_user 5y agoI don't think it is helpful to talk about multiple universes, that makes a strong implication towards a many world interpretation. You're correct but the point is "many worlds" or Copenhagen interpretation having no implications, they each describe the same mathematical/experimental results. They're just "ways to think about the results". They matter as much as whether you label the axes of a graph x and y or A and B. So any theory that "requires" many worlds is inherently not looking using the standard interpretation of many worlds and quantum mechanics.
- danbruc 5y agoEven if they have no observable differences, they still make different metaphysical claims. If I see Schrödinger's cat alive, many world claims that there actually also exists a dead cat while Copenhagen claims that there is only one alive cat. You may argue that the differences are irrelevant for all practical purposes but you don't get to claim that there are no differences between different interpretations.
- joe_the_user 5y agoYou may argue that the differences are irrelevant for all practical purposes but you don't get to claim that there are no differences between different interpretations. It depends what one considers "significant differences". If I go from caring about the practical implications of an interpretation to some other implications, I could make all sorts of distinctions. Explanation X might be written in French and explanation Y might be written in Spanish. Even if one is a translation of the other, you could say they're different in various ways. Or maybe one explanation contains swear words and makes the reader feel bad and so the reader might not "like" that explanation. But my point above is more specific. Since the two interpretations have the same practical implications, a practical prediction can't really "need" one interpretation - the other interpretation gives you the result. This is the point about all the hidden objects/states explanations have classical analogues. And if we're getting metaphysical, Copenhagen doesn't say live cat or dead cat but says superimposed state.
- 5y ago