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It's statistical. They could genotype a subset of genetic markers. As long as the N of their sample is high enough (tens, hundreds), this would give sufficient
by inciampati 5y ago
It's statistical. They could genotype a subset of genetic markers. As long as the N of their sample is high enough (tens, hundreds), this would give sufficient precision to make a statement about in- vs out- group variability. These estimates have held up.
- prvc 5y ago>They could genotype a subset of genetic markers. As long as the N of their sample is high enough (tens, hundreds), this would give sufficient precision Doesn't the sample of markers have to be unbiased as well? How would they have ensured this?
- dekhn 5y agoyou're starting to unravel many of the long-standing but not well supported claims of human genetics. Even with the human genome it's nontrivial to reliably compare people.