4 ms·
Is that capital also not produced by workers, in the past? It’s a form of crystallised labour. Also, does a fixed initial investment entitle one to a fraction
by lucian1900 5y ago
Is that capital also not produced by workers, in the past? It’s a form of crystallised labour.
Also, does a fixed initial investment entitle one to a fraction of all future (variable) value produced? Why?
- chii 5y agoAll investments entitle one to all future productivity produced from said investment. This is the central idea of ownership. The new capital is _produced_ by the workers, but it was done with initial capital that is _owned_ by the capitalist. So unless you agree that these initial capital is not worth anything (despite it being required), how can _all_ capital belong to the workers that made it? After all, the workers agreed to receive their wage in exchange for producing, using the seed capital supplied by the capitalist.
- lucian1900 5y agoThe initial capital entitles the investor to a fraction of all labour, in perpetuity? Without any further work or investment? Yes, this appropriation is central to the capitalist idea of ownership. Another word for that is theft.