2 ms·

Makes sense. The percentage that you have to freely allocate could be a function of the amount being allocated. For example, someone with $1M income has only 20

by daenz 5y ago

Makes sense. The percentage that you have to freely allocate could be a function of the amount being allocated. For example, someone with $1M income has only 20% of their taxes for free allocation, while someone with $50k income can freely allocate 100%.

chii 5y ago
So in other words, it's OK if the rich get less representation, because they're rich? But it's not OK if the poor gets less representation - because of political correctness?
- anoncake 5y ago
  Unless taxes are regressive, the rich still get more representation in that example.