4 ms·

They call it both cannabis and marijuana here too and yet it is not associated with blacks nor mexicans. Countries without a significant black or latin american

They call it both cannabis and marijuana here too and yet it is not associated with blacks nor mexicans. Countries without a significant black or latin american population have the same laws, I think that you have an american-centric view regarding this topic.

boomboomsubban 6y ago
What they said is a well documented part of American history, so it is an American centric view but also true. If you're curious, read about Harry Anslinger for a start. >Countries without a significant black or latin american population have the same laws There are international laws stating marijuana should be legal for medicinal use only, which the US is largely responsible for. Countries that don't want to piss off the US have little choice.
SamoyedFurFluff 6y ago
But the topic is about drug laws in America. America had centuries of race-based slavery, significant political fighting and wars based on protecting race-based enslavement, and after said enslavement was banned a further generation(or two) of institutionalized separation of services based on race. In America there are people alive who at one point were unable to participate in the democratic political system because of their race. America is unique in that their culture has only fairly recently outlawed explicitly, institutionally treating people of other races as lesser than whites, as a result of longstanding cultural traditions and norms to justify centuries of have race-based slavery. (The only way you can have massive slavery of a specific race of people in a society and have that society not view it as a complete aberration is if they somehow normalize and justify it to themselves.) In this context of a country has had, until very recently, explicitly government sanctioned discrimination on the bases of race, it makes sense that even though explicit discrimination is no longer allowed laws may still be passed that are designed to implicitly be government sanctioned discrimination on the basis of race.
- h_anna_h 6y ago
  The point is that said laws exist in most of the world, so the racism explanation does not make sense by itself (if https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=26046553 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=26046553 is true however it would make sense) > America is unique in that their culture has only fairly recently outlawed explicitly, institutionally treating people of other races as lesser than whites USA is far from unique in that regard, certain commonwealth countries have the same issue.

boomboomsubban 6y ago

What they said is a well documented part of American history, so it is an American centric view but also true. If you're curious, read about Harry Anslinger for a start. >Countries without a significant black or latin american population have the same laws There are international laws stating marijuana should be legal for medicinal use only, which the US is largely responsible for. Countries that don't want to piss off the US have little choice.

SamoyedFurFluff 6y ago

But the topic is about drug laws in America. America had centuries of race-based slavery, significant political fighting and wars based on protecting race-based enslavement, and after said enslavement was banned a further generation(or two) of institutionalized separation of services based on race. In America there are people alive who at one point were unable to participate in the democratic political system because of their race. America is unique in that their culture has only fairly recently outlawed explicitly, institutionally treating people of other races as lesser than whites, as a result of longstanding cultural traditions and norms to justify centuries of have race-based slavery. (The only way you can have massive slavery of a specific race of people in a society and have that society not view it as a complete aberration is if they somehow normalize and justify it to themselves.) In this context of a country has had, until very recently, explicitly government sanctioned discrimination on the bases of race, it makes sense that even though explicit discrimination is no longer allowed laws may still be passed that are designed to implicitly be government sanctioned discrimination on the basis of race.

h_anna_h 6y ago
The point is that said laws exist in most of the world, so the racism explanation does not make sense by itself (if https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=26046553 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=26046553 is true however it would make sense) > America is unique in that their culture has only fairly recently outlawed explicitly, institutionally treating people of other races as lesser than whites USA is far from unique in that regard, certain commonwealth countries have the same issue.