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So when people who want to buy and have the funds to buy are prevented from buying by their broker, would the resulting price be one that "does not reflect legi

So when people who want to buy and have the funds to buy are prevented from buying by their broker, would the resulting price be one that "does not reflect legitimate forces of supply and demand"?

SpicyLemonZest 6y ago
In general, no, brokers being unwilling or unable to help facilitate a trade is a legitimate market factor. There's no fundamental right to have people trade with you. It's would of course be a different story if the broker's unwillingness came from their participation in a price manipulation scheme. I don't think that's really plausible here, although I suppose I wouldn't rule it out given the crazy dumb things Robinhood has done in the past.