4 ms·
Could you cite that? If you're comparing median to median, I find that very unlikely. There are plenty of soft barriers to progress for gay men.
by throwaway2245 6y ago
Could you cite that? If you're comparing median to median, I find that very unlikely.
There are plenty of soft barriers to progress for gay men.
- nxpnsv 6y agoCompare to the median of straight men+women, or the median of straight men? In median, even in Norway women earn on average 80% of men. Assuming sexual orientation otherwise doesn't matter, there should then be a difference between gay men and straight people in general...
- ganzuul 6y agoYou are assuming the single foundation of your argument. Please don't do that.
- nxpnsv 6y agoI made likely what the post I answered to found unlikely. I could not find reliable stats for gay wages in Norway. Gender paygap is however very well monitored by http://www.ssb.no/ http://www.ssb.no/ Arguably my point is not great. If you really want to know about gay conditions in Norway, try this report https://www.ssb.no/a/english/publikasjoner/pdf/rapp_201038_en/rapp_201038_en.pdf https://www.ssb.no/a/english/publikasjoner/pdf/rapp_201038_e...
- jusssi 6y agoGay men are less likely to have children, so not having the expenses resulting from that leaves more disposable income. This is what I've seen cited as a reason multiple times. I have no reference to point to, maybe someone else does?
- Saint_Genet 6y agoA fairly substantial part of the Grindr usrbase is made up of ostensibly straight married family fathers.
- pbhjpbhj 6y agoWouldn't that be "bi[-curious] married family fathers", mainly, assuming you're not suggesting they all fathered children against their will. Or, maybe you mean people who never had/never intended to have homosexual sex? Are there published stats you're referencing?
- Saint_Genet 6y agoI mean men who have self-internalized being straight due to living in a homophobic society. And I speak from personal experience as a long time Grindr user.
- pbhjpbhj 6y agoI see a lot of comments [in general on the web] calling people 'gay' when those people clearly had/are having both heterosexual and homosexual relationships. Things like "Freddie Mercury was gay" when Brian May attests that Mercury enjoyed heterosexual encounters too. The proper definition is bisexual then, it seems. But perhaps the same reluctance to acknowledge those who seek homosexual relationships is present in people who call themselves gay, they won't acknowledge people as bi? Which seems like hypocritical bias against people whose behaviours are bisexual. Maybe the behaviour you call out is because people want to have homosexual sex without being 'gay'. By which I mean without making that sexual activity the focus of their identity (I believe it's known as MSM)? It need not have anything particularly to do with societal disapproval. Who one has sex with, and defining oneself by ones sexuality are quite distinct, as too are sexual desire and desire for relationships. I'm interested in your response?
- throwaway2245 6y agoWhether Freddy Mercury was gay or bi is a culture war which doesn't need to be fought. He can and does represent both gay people and bi people in transcending heterosexual norms. Young people sometimes use the word "gay" to express a complex sexuality which doesn't categorise neatly with a label. It's understood that you can be both "gay" and "bi" simultaneously, or indeed you can be a man who has sex with men who is straight. The only person in this chat who is trying to put strict labels based on behaviour is you (the other commenter only observed some behaviour without labelling), so it seems like you're arguing with yourself?