I do not know about US courts being apolitical but they are far from "mostly fair". See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Manning https://en.wikipe

I do not know about US courts being apolitical but they are far from "mostly fair". See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Manning https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Manning, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kelo_v._City_of_New_London https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kelo_v._City_of_New_London, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stump_v._Sparkman https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stump_v._Sparkman, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Rodney_Gilstrap https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Rodney_Gilstrap, etc > and I maintain that it's not What makes you think that it is not?