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In general the hemisphere with more land likely has more land fulfilling any particular properties that are not inherent to the distinction, and we do know that
by naniwaduni 6y ago
In general the hemisphere with more land likely has more land fulfilling any particular properties that are not inherent to the distinction, and we do know that humans are terrestrial. So ceteris paribus, "might have taken a special type of land combined with a special history of human migration or other factors" is more or less a matter of more land leading to more chance.
It is not a comprehensive explanation. It is quite obvious that there are other variables involved!
But as a simple explanation it has the advantage of being conceivably predictable without hindsight.
- lopmotr 6y agoIt's too simple to be interesting. You could obviously divide up the world into some other halves where the half with less land ended up with the sundials and say "even though it predicts the wrong outcome, this explanation is obviously right."
- naniwaduni 6y agoThat's the point. It is an explanation reduced enough to suggest that the phenomenon is not particularly interesting.
- IIAOPSW 6y agoOther arbitrary divisions don't have the sundial property that north and south have.