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Interesting. Are you suggesting that in cases where all parties must consent, the law may not be passed until those parties explicitly provide consent?
by uoaei 7y ago
Interesting. Are you suggesting that in cases where all parties must consent, the law may not be passed until those parties explicitly provide consent?
- SkyBelow 7y agoI meant more that the government has no place legislating the behavior. I take the idea that what two consenting adults do in their own bedroom is their own business and not the government's and apply it even if they are, for example, trading or doing drugs in their bedroom. Granted, all of this is pretty much meaningless when you have a government overstepping its bounds and doing what it wants. In that case, it seems the blame of the corrupted system would fall on those corrupting it (the corrupt government allowing itself to be bribed in exchange for monopolies).