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But normally it would be written "For all natural numbers, S(m) = S(n) if and only if m = n." "if and only if" is symmetric, but English isn't, really.
by mcguire 7y ago
But normally it would be written "For all natural numbers, S(m) = S(n) if and only if m = n."
"if and only if" is symmetric, but English isn't, really.
- lidHanteyk 7y agoLucky 10000: "If and only if" [0] is a particular phrase in English with a particular meaning. It is symmetric, so that your version has the same logical content as the original. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/If_and_only_if https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/If_and_only_if
- mcguire 7y agoThe same logical content, yes, but... Do you write the Fibonacci function as "n * (n-1) = fib(n)"?
- Dylan16807 7y agoI don't know why you think it's backwards. It makes lots of sense to put "m=n" first. It's giving the definition of equality. "[term] is [definition]".