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No it doesn't. A fine's discouraging effect is proportional to the person's ability to pay for it.
by Daishiman 7y ago
No it doesn't. A fine's discouraging effect is proportional to the person's ability to pay for it.
- ikeboy 7y agoI ran through the model in other comments, so I won't repeat it here, but in general the disincentive is the same, but people's desire to do something that costs a certain amount goes up with their wealth (called an income effect in economics).