4 ms·
IIRC Tyndale was burned at the stake for his efforts.
by nemosaltat 7y ago
IIRC Tyndale was burned at the stake for his efforts.
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]
- pbhjpbhj 7y agoYou can understand why, the meaning of the NT goes pretty hard against established religion as it cuts priests out of the loop entirely. It also has a very strong, communist/shared wealth message. If you're rich or powerful and don't believe it would be anathema. Letting just anyone read that ...
- eru 7y agoCompare https://slatestarcodex.com/2019/07/08/gay-rites-are-civil-rites/ https://slatestarcodex.com/2019/07/08/gay-rites-are-civil-ri...
- whatshisface 7y agoThere's also a whole lot of "give unto Cesar what is Cesar's," and some "come on guys, don't start the Jewish-Roman wars, they're going to be a bad idea." I don't see why rich people should be bothered by that.
- marshray 7y agoThere's no comparison in the degree, but Manning, Assange, and Snowden are perhaps recent examples of radical who argued that individuals should be able to read the raw source text used to justify the structure of society (not to mention wars in the M.E.).
- chrismorgan 7y agoHowever, for contrast, consider also John 11:47–53; the leaders both political (chief priests) and religious (Pharisees) were considering Jesus and his teachings to threaten the relatively stable situation they had with the Romans—that was a key reason they claimed in why they sought his death.
- simonh 7y agoStrangled to death and then burned, apparently. For those not familiar with the period, Tyndale was executed during the reign of Henry VIII, while England was still at least nominally a Catholic nation (Henry's relationship with Catholicism is complicated). At that time Catholicism was opposed to translations of the Bible into local languages and translation was a politically and theologically charged issue. In this case, Tyndale translated certain terms in such a way as to undermine various Catholic principles and doctrines. For example using the term Congregation, implying the Bible was referring in certain passages to the Christian community as a whole, instead of the term Church which was associated specifically with the institutions of Catholicism. King James was a protestant ruling about 70 years later, so had no problem with an English language translation, and in fact this was an opportunity to cement the basic language of protestant Biblical interpretation in the minds of the English people.
- shatnersbassoon 7y ago>>> King James was a protestant ruling about 70 years later I think it was people's doubts about his protestantism that led him to commission the bible - James' mother was Mary Queen of Scots, a catholic who was executed for a supposed plot to depose his predecessor Elizabeth I.