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For a private entity on its own, you are completely correct. When that private entity starts working with the government to provide an official government serv
by SkyBelow 7y ago
For a private entity on its own, you are completely correct. When that private entity starts working with the government to provide an official government service, then to the extent they are providing that official government service, they are no longer just a private company on its own.
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]
- icebraining 7y agoWell, maybe. MNN is a public access TV channel with an exclusive franchise agreement with the New York City government, yet the SCOTUS recently declared it wasn't a state actor for purposes of the First Amendment. As the court wrote, "the City’s designation is analogous to a government license, a government contract, or a government-granted monopoly, none of which converts a private entity into a state actor — unless the private entity is performing a traditional, exclusive public function." Since it's unlike that Twitter can be considered to be performing "a traditional, exclusive public function", it's unlikely they'll fall under that provision.