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I don't believe this argument but I'll make it. The very concept that this is 'your' data is in error. It is demographic data collected by third parties 'abou

I don't believe this argument but I'll make it. The very concept that this is 'your' data is in error. It is demographic data collected by third parties 'about' you. You've entered into consensual relationships to provide all of this data with those third parties, for the express purpose of using it for advertising. There is no expectation that it then would not be used for that purpose, quite the opposite thats why it is collected. Conversely, your relationship with the data your doctor collects has had a long expectation of privacy. Reinforcing that expectation with explicit laws doesn't change the basic relationship.

simion314 7y ago
>You've entered into consensual relationships to provide all of this data with those third parties Before GDPR all of this was not so clear for many people, my parents do not know that they are giving up their data, that it is sold on a market, that a profile of them is created somewhere and each click will put some new tags on that profile.
- filoleg 7y ago
  > [users] do not know that they are giving up their data, that it is sold on a market I agree that this is a big one, and I believe that businesses indeed should explicitly and plainly let users know what kind of data is stored and how it is used. However, isn't one of the main issues with GDPR the fact that it doesn't give users an option to enter in this kind of relationship with a company, even if both parties are aware and consenting? I am not a legal expert, but I thought(according to my understanding of GDPR) that businesses are not allowed to store personal data about users, period, unless the data is needed to provide the service. I have no idea if "we need this data, so we can use it for ads to earn the revenue needed to finance our service" qualifies as "needed to provide the service", but I always thought it didn't. I will be happy if someone could clarify this point and, potentially, prove me wrong.
  - kasey_junk 7y ago
    This is not true. Consent is a basis for storing data.

simion314 7y ago

>You've entered into consensual relationships to provide all of this data with those third parties Before GDPR all of this was not so clear for many people, my parents do not know that they are giving up their data, that it is sold on a market, that a profile of them is created somewhere and each click will put some new tags on that profile.

filoleg 7y ago
> [users] do not know that they are giving up their data, that it is sold on a market I agree that this is a big one, and I believe that businesses indeed should explicitly and plainly let users know what kind of data is stored and how it is used. However, isn't one of the main issues with GDPR the fact that it doesn't give users an option to enter in this kind of relationship with a company, even if both parties are aware and consenting? I am not a legal expert, but I thought(according to my understanding of GDPR) that businesses are not allowed to store personal data about users, period, unless the data is needed to provide the service. I have no idea if "we need this data, so we can use it for ads to earn the revenue needed to finance our service" qualifies as "needed to provide the service", but I always thought it didn't. I will be happy if someone could clarify this point and, potentially, prove me wrong.
- kasey_junk 7y ago
  This is not true. Consent is a basis for storing data.