> The accusation only holds if your definition of "selling data" includes any transaction where data is leaked as part of a transaction. Importantly, in the ad

> The accusation only holds if your definition of "selling data" includes any transaction where data is leaked as part of a transaction. Importantly, in the ad model the information leakage is an unintended (but unavoidable) side effect. So, if leaking data isn't their primary intent, it's cool if it happens — even if Facebook knows there's a causal relationship between their advertising model and data leakage? Why should a company not be liable for known externalities of their business?