4 ms·

You've got it backwards. "time" is the unit of punishment, as it's more equal than wealth. We agree that both a rich and poor person should serve the same tim

You've got it backwards. "time" is the unit of punishment, as it's more equal than wealth. We agree that both a rich and poor person should serve the same time in prison for the same crime Therefore, for a fine, both a rich and a poor person should pay the same fine relative to their earnings per unit of time. i.e., if the fine is $100 for someone making $15,000/year, it should be $100,000 for someone making $15,000,000/year

cs02rm0 8y ago
That's simple. But what about someone making $150k a year with no assets vs. someone living in a $1.5m property with no job who made $15k last year on $150k of shares? What about someone with $1.5m in shares who made a $15k loss on them last year? Do they get paid instead of fined?