4 ms·
> substituting it for '?!' and '!?' But these aren't the same!?
by blattimwind 8y ago
> substituting it for '?!' and '!?'
But these aren't the same!?
- lifthrasiir 8y agoI think the interrobang or its alikes have different functions in written languages and spoken languages. In written languages they all are just a grab bag of mixed-mode reactions including surprise or rhetorical questions. In spoken languages (or corresponding transcripts), I found a distinction between !? and ?! is valuable because there is temporality not usually represented in written languages, and would avoid ‽ for the same reason. Likewise I argue that the number of dots in ellipses is meaningless in written languages (henceforth "standardized" to three dots) but can be actually meaningful in spoken languages.
- pbhjpbhj 8y agoHow do you speak a 4-dotted ellipsis differently to a 3-dotted one?!
- blattimwind 8y agoIt's ...... longer.
- pssflops 8y agoOne of the four dots ended your previous sentence before you begin speaking again.
- Faaak 8y agoOn the dvorak keyboard, if you compose ? and !, it replaced by ⸘, whereas ! and ? will give ‽
- pc86 8y ago⸘Porque no los dos‽