5 ms·
Good catch, I had to correct that bit upon re-reading. What I am truly aiming at is the quality of universality (applicability throughout time and space) that t
by alpos 9y ago
Good catch, I had to correct that bit upon re-reading.
What I am truly aiming at is the quality of universality (applicability throughout time and space) that these observations lack.
With gravity we see a principle which, when mathematically described in sufficient detail, is consistent throughout space and time. What we know of it, we know only due to the observations we can make locally and in our timeline thus far; however, even with such a limited view, we can already see that gravity very likely is as it has always been and is the same throughout the universe.
This is certainly not true of neither Moore's law nor Eroom's law.
- amelius 9y agoI see. Another angle is that Moore's and Eroom's laws describe man-made processes (which are thus not universally applicable throughout time), just like e.g. economic laws describe man-made processes.