4 ms·

Wow, this is very interesting. Are spouses in the US entitled to shares in your company after a divorce?

• e40 9y ago
  If said shares were acquired after the start of the marriage.
• adventured 9y ago
  Depends on the state, among other things. In community property states (eg California), value gained during the marriage is typically treated as shared unless there's another contract. A recent famous case, involving the US oil tycoon Harold Hamm, in which the circumstances occurred in Oklahoma (not a community property state), ended with his wife getting a billion dollar settlement. He was already rich before marrying her and already owned his position in the company in question, however he didn't get a prenuptial agreement. She argued successfully that her role in the marriage was a critical assist to his ability to focus on building up the oil company. https://www.nytimes.com/2014/11/11/business/harold-hamm-oklahoma-oilman-billion-dollar-divorce.html https://www.nytimes.com/2014/11/11/business/harold-hamm-okla...
  • ballenf 9y ago
    Inheritance is also usually exempted in most states from being shared. Unless it becomes too intertwined in the couple's holdings overall.
• burkaman 9y ago
  Maybe, but that's irrelevant because they founded the company together.
• Sleeep 9y ago
  Why are you just assuming that the company was his alone and she had no ownership at the time of the divorce?