> When one argues about income redistribution, he does so it can be done in its own country. Why should wealth redistribution be scoped by country, but not les

> When one argues about income redistribution, he does so it can be done in its own country. Why should wealth redistribution be scoped by country, but not less, not more? The rich class in the United States want to limit the redistribution within themselves, and they are called greedy and evil. Yet when the lower class of the US want to limit the redistribution within the US, and refuse the share with the even poorer, they call themselves the paragons of virtue. Isn't it double standards? And I'm not talking about income redistribution, but wealth redistribution. The opportunity to work is important in that.