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Nope. In the U.S., the constitution stipulates that federal judges, "both of the supreme and inferior courts, shall hold their offices during good behaviour" h
by afarrell 11y ago
Nope. In the U.S., the constitution stipulates that federal judges, "both of the supreme and inferior courts, shall hold their offices during good behaviour"
https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articleiii https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articleiii
"Good behavior" here does not refer to their opinions in rulings. If it did, that would eliminate the independence of the judiciary.
- dragonwriter 11y agoAll of that is true except the word "Nope".
- pbhjpbhj 11y agoSo, for example, if all of a judges rulings were turned over on appeal based on ignorance of common facts nothing would happen unless Congress chose to impeach them? Or are judicial rulings based on ignorance of common knowledge not considered problematic in law.
- afarrell 11y ago"Problematic" is too vague a term here. Do you mean "impeachable offense", or "something a group of people think is a problem"? If literally all or even > 50% of a district court judge's rulings were reversed on appeal, would they face sanction? I've never heard of this happening so I don't really know. But I have never heard of there being a process for it. I am curious what process folks think there should be?