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I'm not sure how you got that. In both the original theorem and the new "strong" theorem, the theory is a conditional statement (if-then), and that humans have
by jomoba 17y ago
I'm not sure how you got that. In both the original theorem and the new "strong" theorem, the theory is a conditional statement (if-then), and that humans have free will is part of the condition, not part of the conclusion.
In describing the original theorem they write: "It asserts, roughly, that if indeed we humans have free will, then elementary particles already have their own small share of this valuable commodity."
And in describing the new theorem, they write: "The axioms SPIN, TWIN and MIN imply that..." Where the axiom MIN is: "Assume that the experiments performed by A and B are space-like separated. Then experimenter B can freely choose..." That "then" clause occurs inside the axiom, so is part of what is assumed. The axioms are assumed - in particular, the free will of experimenter B is assumed - and a conclusion is drawn.
- ars 17y ago"It asserts, roughly, that if indeed we humans have free will, then elementary particles already have their own small share of this valuable commodity." He goes on to show the reverse of this. This line is a teaser, not a conclusion. It doesn't really make sense than human free will should affect elementary particles, but the reverse does make (some) sense. The experimental setup of having a human choose something is to correlate the two, not to mean that a human choosing the setup give the particles free will. (Unless I totally misunderstood this article, which is certainly possible.)