> Please be civil, I'm not going to "fuck off" Sorry, I didn't mean you specifically (unless you're an economist, I guess). You're right though, I've changed t

> Please be civil, I'm not going to "fuck off" Sorry, I didn't mean you specifically (unless you're an economist, I guess). You're right though, I've changed the wording. > Your logic would only apply if the government was initially providing free healthcare, and then moved to a regime where healthcare was provided by employers, which is not what happened. The government shifted the responsibility for insurance from individuals to corporations. Fact: if a company does not provide insurance, then they pay a tax. Fact: SCOTUS called this requirement a tax. > The problem with your reasoning is that it deals with everything except economic fundamentals, i.e. total consumption per person. The problem with your argument is that you assume that taxes attached to empoyment are somehow different from other taxes, and ignore the fact that businesses have benefited from decreased taxes for decades and yet wages have stagnated. (Edit: Concretely, if I impose a new flat tax on corporate profits, does that count as "compensation"? No, it doesn't. The issue of how it effects compensation is separate. Just because a tax is attached to employment doesn't make that tax part of compensation.) Again, the issue is dead simple: do increased corporate taxes explain income stagnation? Given that corporate taxes have in fact decreased over the time period we are talking about, the causation you're proposed is literally vacuous ("vacuous" here is a technical description of the problem with your argument, not an insult). In general, think of taxes attached to income "use taxes" on the country's human capital, rather than "mandatory employee compensation". Because historically we have never included taxes as part of "compensation", and starting that practice now is uninformative unless we take into account the global perspective on corporate taxes.