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"In Europe, meat was considered the manliest, strongest component of a meal," Laudan notes, and chefs wanted it to shine. So they began cooking meat in meat-bas
by 001sky 11y ago
"In Europe, meat was considered the manliest, strongest component of a meal," Laudan notes, and chefs wanted it to shine. So they began cooking meat in meat-based gravies, to intensify its flavor.
Main thesis.
Interestingly enough, the European pallate has also had a dterimental effect on some oriental and african cuisines athat were historically more spicy.
That bein said, history doesn't really bear out the main thses as laid out in the headline. Spices were a very late addition to the european pallatte, and the timeline give for their retrenchment would put them at a very small proportion of the timeline of historical europe. In other words, "the spice" era was merely a short lived fad. For most of its history spices were rare and not very widespread in usage, then they were available, and then they were superseeded with other technical innovations. The technical innovation of stock based sauce is a derivative of increasing economic wealth. But the snob factor is really a poor way to phrase it. It is more true that the european pallate took the spice out of middle-eastern and north african cuisine based on the snob-factor. This makes more sense because the status of european pallate was seen as being higher than local cuisinge during the colonial and post-colonial transition peirods. That is, it was social aspiration driving the trend, not technical innovation. Its much less clear that a similar explanatory sequence works for the evolution of the euroean pallate itself.
- cafard 11y agoCapsicum wasn't known outside of the Americas before the Europeans reached it, but weren't other spices known well before that, e.g. cumin?
- 001sky 11y agoIt's all a matter of degree. As to what was 'known' and what was actually commonly or widespread in use, for example, seems to matter a lot. For exmaple, there are definitely regions that show early adoption of arabic culinary influence eg, moorish spain. the early days of venetian traders of the middle ages (1250), etc. And the returning soldiers from the crusades would have rbought back implicit knowledge to incorporate spices in other areas further north (1100-1300). But it would also seem that those exceptions prove the rule--the timeframe we are talking about is either early and very geographically constrained or later and constrained to a finite window of time. But we know that the persians and arabs had spices and that the hellenistic and roman empires had access to the spoils of war from those geographic regions. http://www.spiceadvice.com/history/ http://www.spiceadvice.com/history/ (not the greatest source, but illustrative)