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I agree, existence must imply the program being mandatory, for exactly the reasons you describe. But perhaps the fact that the justices nearly-unanimously agree
by tanderson92 11y ago
I agree, existence must imply the program being mandatory, for exactly the reasons you describe. But perhaps the fact that the justices nearly-unanimously agreed on its unconstitionality means it should not have existed? You have to argue the legality of the program on the merits, not on the basis of "well, if we didn't violate the constitution, the program would not work".
And yeah, I am not trying to pass judgement using the label of socialism, I am trying to draw parallels to what people often decry as one of the evils of socialist states. I understand that these programs were not created in such a context; I certainly do not care about party affiliations or political leanings, only the direct, observable outcomes of the program.
- ubernostrum 11y agoI think it's hard to view in terms of timelessly constitutional or not; the Court's favored interpretations of bits of the Constitution have shifted back and forth widely since the Supreme Court was established. So I suspect the strongest possible statement is that this is a program most people accepted as constitutional without much controversy at the time of the New Deal, but since then the Court's interpretation (and the political climate in the country, of which the Court is for better or worse a reflection) has shifted.
- deleted 11y ago[deleted]