> that is, the right to a government in which each part of the government exercises only those powers assigned to it by the people (in the case of the US, eithe

> that is, the right to a government in which each part of the government exercises only those powers assigned to it by the people (in the case of the US, either directly through the Constitution, or through acts of other parts of government themselves acting through their Constitutional powers.) This is what I am confused about. > SENATOR TOM COTTON: The program has been approved 40 times by 15 different, independent federal judges based on 36 years of Supreme Court precedent. It has been approved by two presidents of both parties. I am not clear on this point. I am wondering if someone can explain to me where in the Constitution something was violated. According to the source I've linked a few times, I don't understand. To be blunt, everyone seems to throw around "violated the Constitution" without ever citing the Constitution.