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No, not really. There are many NP-Complete problems, and there are many NP problems that are thought to be neither NPC nor in P. In fact, if P != NP, there ar
by Ar-Curunir 11y ago
No, not really.
There are many NP-Complete problems, and there are many NP problems that are thought to be neither NPC nor in P.
In fact, if P != NP, there are infinitely many such problems.
So proving P != NP could proceed by finding some problem in NP that is not also in P.
- nsnick 11y agoWhich problem do you think is NP but is not NP Complete?
- Ar-Curunir 11y agoSee: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NP-intermediate https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NP-intermediate
- nsnick 11y agoGreat link I particularly like the part that says, "P = NP if and only if NPI is empty." seems to indicate that if there are any NP Intermediate problems P would be proven not to equal NP.
- mnarayan01 11y agoThat's pretty far from your original statement. Which isn't to say that's not what you _meant_ in your original statement; just that it's not how I (and minimally the GP) read it.