History is littered with accounts of people consummating marriages at ages far below 16. In many jurisdictions, this would be considered pedophilia. Keeping in

History is littered with accounts of people consummating marriages at ages far below 16. In many jurisdictions, this would be considered pedophilia. Keeping in mind that -other than overall improvements in health- a man from Ancient Greece is physiologically no different from a man from Today's Greece, Is it your position that the husband or wife in these socially acceptable ancient marriages was a pedophile? Either a "yes" or a "no" is a totally acceptable answer here. I'm interested in an earnest discussion; I'm not trying to lead you down a garden path or anything.